Rene
Why do we use present perf. cont. in this sentence? Hello everybody, :) I was just reading an article on goal.com and I was wondering about the following sentence. "The coach says the two do not keep in touch, despite having worked together for three years at Real Madrid." Context: The coach (J.Mourinho) is not working for Real Madrid anymore but the player (C. Ronaldo) still is. Why do we use "having worked" in this sentence"? I mean this is present perfect continuous but there is no connection to the present. The coach worked for Real Madrid two years ago. Or do we use having in this sentence because there is the word despite before have and so we have to put the -ing at the end of the word have? Thank you very much! Rene
Sep 19, 2014 7:21 AM
Answers · 8
2
IIt's because of the word 'despite', which is a preposition. We use the gerund form after prepositions.
September 19, 2014
1
I'm glad you've realise it's not what you first thought. ;) "Have" is in the gerund form, because it follows "despite" and it begins a noun clause. Look at it this way: "They have worked together for three years at Real Madrid..." (ie. their experience, relevant to now) "...(but) the coach says the two do not keep in touch." (this is your present tense: "says". So the present perfect in the first clause matches with this timeframe) Rearranging the statements and adding "despite", we have: "The coach says the two do not keep in touch, despite having worked together for three years at Real Madrid."
September 19, 2014
Ok sorry. I was confused and of course it is not the present perfect continious. But why do we use the -ing form of the word have in this sentence ?
September 19, 2014
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