El perro de san Roque no tiene rabo porque Ramón RamÏrez se lo ha cortado. El perro de san Roque no tiene rabo porque Ramón RamÏrez se lo ha cortado. translation for this sentence to English is

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El perro de san Roque no tiene rabo porque Ramón RamÏrez se lo ha cortado. El perro de san Roque no tiene rabo porque Ramón RamÏrez se lo ha cortado. translation for this sentence to English is The dog of San Roque has no tail because Ramón RamÏrez has cut it. right? can u make a explanation for me this part ;Ramón RamÏrez se lo ha cortado, in gramammar? i am confused between is it has been cut or has cut.

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Hello, jonah89, The whole translation would be: "because R.R. has cut it to it (that is to say "has cut the tail to the dog". So, SE: to the dog, and LO: the tail. LE (indirect object) becomes SE when followed by the direct object (LO/s, LA/s). R.R. LE ha cortado el rabo---- R.R. SE LO ha cortado.

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As far as I have learnt, "le lo" sounds like a word that may be offensive to spanish speakers. So whenever Le and Lo appear together, ''Le'' is replaced by ''se'' :)

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"se lo ha cortado" it would be "has cut it" "it" being the tail. You can't say "it has been cut" without changing the sentence. ie. "The dog of San Roque has no tail because it has been cut by Ramón RamÏrez" because what was cut is the tail and the one who cut it is Ramón Ramirez. Your sentence it's correct. :)

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