yujini
"Everyone's needs are different." plural noun and verb after *everyone*? I heard one native say, "Everyone's needs are different." and I'm curious about it cause I learned *every(one)* is followed by singular noun and verb, as in "everyone *has* to do it." What makes the difference to make the plural noun and verb(needs, are) possible in that remark? Thanks in advance.
٢٩ نوفمبر ٢٠١٩ ١٠:١٥
الإجابات · 4
2
In this sentence, "needs" is the subject and is plural. "Everyone's" is genitive. So the verb must agree with "needs".
٢٩ نوفمبر ٢٠١٩
It is also possible to say “Everyone’s need is different.” if you are talking about only one type of need that each person has.
٢٩ نوفمبر ٢٠١٩
"Needs' is plural. I don't have only one need, I have several needs. I need more than one thing, I need many things. Plural. "Everyone's" means that it belongs to every one of us, i.e. each of us. The needs (plural) of each of us (plural) is different. Everyone's needs is different. The needs (plural) of every one of us, is different. ….. are different.
٢٩ نوفمبر ٢٠١٩
I would say the plural of needs makes you require a plural verb (are) after it. In the second instance you state you are dealing grammatically with a singular pronoun, hence "has" not have.
٢٩ نوفمبر ٢٠١٩
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