Nobody's Fool I've heard lately a Avril Lavigne's music named "Nobody's fool", and there's the following expression in the lyrics: "I'm not nobody's fool" On a quickly search, I found the following meaning of "to be nobody's fool": to be someone opposite of fool. Ok, but in the lyrics, "be not nobody's fool" has the same meaning? That wouldn't be some kind of pleonasm? Or is the use of "not" normal? Can we use the two expressions without any difference in their meanings?