Both are correct constructions, but we use them in different contexts. "He has told me" is present perfect and it tells us something about the present moment; "He had told me" is past perfect and it tells us something about a past period. Here are some examples. Note that I've used contractions - "he's" and "he'd" - as this is natural in conversation. Do you know that John's getting divorced? [Do you know this now?] Yes, he's told me. [He told me some time before now] Did you know that John's getting divorced? [Did you know this at a specific point in the past?] Yes, he'd told me about it [He told me some time before that point]

English has many verb forms each with a different meaning. Each of the following forms is correct for an appropriate situation. He told me some news. He just told me some news. He was telling me some news. He has told me some news. He has just told me some news. He has been telling me news. He had told me some news. He had just told me some news. He had been telling me some news. He has been telling me some news. More information here: https://www.ef.com/ca/english-resources/english-grammar/past/

Really and truly, I cannot think of a context in which anyone would say 'he has told me'. It just sounds unnatural. This isn't about rules of grammar now, just what sounds natural and what is actually used. However, note, I am not saying that 'has' cannot be used with it the participle, because it can. For example, has he already eaten? Anyway, to fully determine which is correct, you must give us a context or flesh out the sentence.

Both are correct, it just depends on the situation. “He has told me” is the present perfect tense, while “He has told me” is the past perfect tense. You can say both: He has told me every day since we met that he loves me. He had told me to be quiet but I didn’t listen.

I think number1 is correct