"Had been there" is past in relation to another past event. I had been there before when I first traveled to France. "Have been there" is still present. It is an event that happened sometime before now, but the time is unclear. It is in relation to the present. I have been there many time (I can still go again). I have already eaten lunch ( I am not hungry now). I have been to that restaurant (so I know it is good or not).

There is a massive difference. "I have been there" tells us about the present. "I had been there" tells us about the past. You will also use this form with a past simple action. Basically, this grammatical pattern uses an earlier action to describe, explain or refer to a later action or situation.

When you say 'I have been there' you are placing yourself in the present and talking about a time in the past-- a completed time in the past. When you say 'I had been there" you first put yourself at a point in the past and communicate from that time about a time even earlier. The action, or in this case, the 'being' was completed before the time in the past from which you communicate.

Hello, I am a native french speaker but I believe I believe that I have got the difference between these sentences.When you say, "I have been there", it means you are likely to be at the same place at the moment you are talking.For instance," I have been in there(England) for ten years" meaning you have spent at least ten years there(You are still in England) or(Ca fait 10 ans que je vis en Angleterre in french).On the other hand,when you say "I had been there",you are talking about a place where you have been before another.For instance,"I had been there( in England) for ten years when I decided to go to Japan.By the way, this is what I think so don't take my words.Wait for the approval of a native English speaker.

had been there -- Past Perfect, action before action have been there -- Present Perfect, action as a result