Ryan
Nobody's Fool
I've heard lately a Avril Lavigne's music named "Nobody's fool", and there's the following expression in the lyrics:
"I'm not nobody's fool"
On a quickly search, I found the following meaning of "to be nobody's fool": to be someone opposite of fool. Ok, but in the lyrics, "be not nobody's fool" has the same meaning? That wouldn't be some kind of pleonasm? Or is the use of "not" normal? Can we use the two expressions without any difference in their meanings?
May 17, 2016 2:45 AM
Answers · 3
1
Okay, so based on: http://forum.wordreference.com/threads/nobodys-fool.442517/
"Nobody's fool" means a person who is independent or cannot be tricked/taken advantage of.
In the song, when she sings "I'm not nobody's fool", Avril Lavigne is trying to say "I'm not anyone's fool". The double negation is common. For example "I aight nobody's slave" means "I'm no one's slave". (aight = slang for "is not", "am not", "are not")
So yes, you are correct! In a way, "i'm not nobody's fool" and "I'm nobody's fool" means the same thing :)
May 17, 2016
1
Written and spoken English are sometimes different. What was meant is likely 'not anybody's fool'. Sometimes when people speak they use grammar incorrectly. When you are writing, do not use 'not nobody's fool'. Only use the correct way to express your ideas.
Song lyrics are poetic so you will find many exceptions to the rules.
It's wonderful that you are aware of this kind of thing.
May 17, 2016
I love Avril Lavigne hahaha and i didn't know that about double negation, your question helped me :)
May 17, 2016
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Ryan
Language Skills
English, Japanese, Portuguese
Learning Language
English
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