The phrase "...all audience were deeply moved" is incorrect. As you suggest, there could be a "the" missing. Adding a "the" would make the sentence refer to everyone attending a particular event. Another possible error is that the writer typed "audience" instead of "audiences". You could say "..all audiences​ were deeply moved", referring to all the sets of people attending all the events.

Your question is fine (but change 'there is' to 'is there' because it's a question) but the sentence you're asking about is incorrect! You could say: 1. His songs were so exquisite that all (of) the audience members were deeply moved. (This refers to just one concert) 2. His songs were so exquisite that all (of) the audiences (that heard them) were deeply moved. (This means he played more than one concert)

Hi Kevin, Firstly: The sentence 'His songs were so exquisite that all audience were deeply moved.' is not correct. There should be a 'the' or 'of the' between 'all' and 'audience'. eg: 'His songs were so exquisite that all of the audience were deeply moved.' - this is correct English. '... all the audience were..' is fine also. Secondly: 'Why is there no "the" between "all" and "audience"?' - this is correct English. You just need to swap "there" and "is". Otherwise that's correct I think. Hope that helps, Guy

The noun "audience" is a collective noun, it's spelled in the singular, but means a group of people..In this case "His songs were so exquisite that all audience were deeply moved" you can put "the" in front of "audience", it depends on the context...Maybe, the author of this sentence said it just in general and he didn't mean some specific "audience" and that's why "the" wasn't put there. About your question: Why IS there..not "Why there IS.."