Marina
Hi everyone. Is “to be averse to” followed ONLY by gerund? e.g. “He isn’t averse to playing football”
2 de mai de 2022 22:49
Respostas · 3
Convidado
I had a look at a Corpus (Just the Word), as I want completely sure. I'm not averse to admitting when I don't know something, and the Oxford English Dictionary, which I'm quickly becoming averse to, wasn't really helpful. It's most commonly followed by a noun or a noun phrase (including gerunds) but it must be used in connection with a noun/pronoun/noun phrase - like in my example above. Have a look at this list, it's a list of since published uses of 'averse to': http://www.just-the-word.com/show_examples.pl?triple=averse_ADJ+vcomp+to_PREP
3 de maio de 2022
How do you use averse in a sentence? Having an obvious disposition of (something) and to vehemently abhor against (something) He seems to be adverse to dieting. No one is more averse to borrowing money than he is. —often used in negative statements to mean willing to She is not averse to taking chances. Use these words into, through, towards instead of to.
3 de maio de 2022
Hi, No. You can follow adverse to with a common noun. I'm not averse to ice cream. I'm not averse to extra sleep on the weekend. But, in that sentence, sleep is a noun. Extra sleep is a good thing. Cheers
2 de maio de 2022
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