Nastacia Lee Kelsey
Me diga vs Digame I am very confused about when the object pronoun is placed before the verb or after and attached to the verb. I understand the concept of reflexive verbs but, from what I can tell, this is not the case in the following example. It is from a Spanish dialogue I was reading: "No me diga Jonathan. Dígame Jon" So in the very same instance and time, the "me" is put before and then after... Very confusing haha.
30 Thg 04 2017 07:24
Câu trả lời · 6
4
Yes, in imperative the pronoun is always added at the end of the verb : Cámbiate , Dígame , Escúchame . But this rules brakes when you add the negative 'no' . : No te cambies (negative imperative is formed with no+ subjunctive) , no me digas , no me escuches . Also interrogative form: ¿Te cambias? (in this case is formed by pronoun + present verb), ¿Me escuchas? Hope this helps.
30 tháng 4 năm 2017
2
Hi Nastacia. According to my understanding, both sentences quoted are in imperative mood. The difference lies is that when it's negative with a "no" at the beginning of the sentence, then the object pronoun, like "me" in this case, will always be placed before the verb. Otherwise, the object pronoun needs to be placed right after the verb, combined together as a same word, like "digame" in this case. It's different from English grammar where the object pronoun is always placed after the verb as long as in imperative mood: Don't tell me this./Tell me this, please. As to the reflexive verbs you mentioned, it's another topic while the placement of the object pronoun of the reflexive verb follows the same rules explained above. For example, Levántate temprano!/ No te levantes temprano! For your reference. :-)
30 tháng 4 năm 2017
1
Dear Nastacia, Both of them are imperative form. For informal - for formal (positive and negative) Dime - Digame No me digas - No me diga Escibeme - Escribame No me escribes - No me escriba I hope this was helpful. If you have any further questions, feel free to ask me. Have a nice day.
30 tháng 4 năm 2017
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