The answer is either yes or no - it depends just how 'proper' you want to be.
In ultra-correct Received Pronunciation they are actually different sounds. When I first studied English phonology, many years ago, the word 'pour' was an example of the /ʊə/ diphthong, made up of an 'oo' followed by an 'uh', making a sound which rhymed with 'fewer'.
Pour /pʊə/
Tour /tʊə/
but
Pore /pɔː/
Tore /tɔː/
However, language changes, and even RP has become more relaxed. Few speakers of standard English in England now make this distinction. The Oxford dictionary now lists the pronunciation of both 'pore' and 'pour' as /pɔː/, but gives two alternative pronunciations for 'tour' : the traditional /tʊə/ and the more relaxed /tɔː/ - the same as 'tore'.
The original difference still persists in some regions, such as Scotland, for example. I was also interested to see that Australian English also retains this distinction, according to Jmat's comment. I also read an article recently comparing the speech of the Queen and her grandson Prince William. While the Queen still uses the traditional /ʊə/ sound in words such as 'pour', William uses the more relaxed and modern /ɔː/.
By the way, the only difference between British and American English regarding these words is the pronunciation of the 'r'. The vowel sound is the same.
GB English: /pɔː/ US English /pɔːr/