Any nuance between "succeed to infinitives" and "succeed in gerunds" ? Help me, please. I think there doesn't seem to be anything grammatically wrong with "succeed to." It just seems to be different from "succeed in" in usage and meaning. Someone was solving English grammar questions, and got stopped by this one, and said sentence (1) seemed to make sense as well, but was not so sure. In truth, I was first puzzled because I had not seen "succeed to" used. So, I searched for sentences in which "succeed to" was used, and gathered that "succeed to" was used a lot. (1) No one has ever succeeded to explain this fact. (2) No one has ever succeeded in explaining this fact. Here's my opinion on the difference between these : Sentence (1) seems to mean that no one has ever done the act of explaining this fact, and in fact, has never gained any opportunity to explain this fact. Sentence (2) seems to mean that many people have been trying to explain this fact, but none of them have made sense of it. So, they somewhat did the act of explaining, but were not successful. Here are several sentences in which "succeed to" is used : (1) He didn't succeed to obtain a scholarship in the Vienna Academy of Fine Arts. (2) Subsequently, he succeeds to become one of Canada's most influential Canadians. (3) There might lie the explanation of why kids, the best of them at least, always succeed to turn any themed camp into Chaotic Camp. (4) Only time will tell if they succeed to reach these goals. (5) There is no dictator in this world who has succeeded to oppress the people forever. (6) They tried many times to do this, and they never succeeded to convert any of the Aztecs as they would have liked. (7) There are tons of examples of people who lack degrees and have succeeded to become among the wealthiest in the world. (8) Whether DC will succeed to bring back powers so happily given away by GB is another matter. To me, "succeed to" just sounds like "manage to." Thanks for your help in advance !